Tuesday, April 24, 2012

[PHI 3000] An asymmetry of evidence?

In comments at Steinblog following my post on the God Helmet, an interesting question comes up:
Can anything at all count as evidence for or against the existence of God?
I take it that the answer to the first disjunct of this question is "yes." The historical record of arguments for the existence of God shows that evidence can be adduced for the claim that God exists.

Why is it supposed to be the case that no evidence can be adduced against the claim that God exists? Why the asymmetry? Isn't the problem of evil supposed to be pointing to such evidence?

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