Wednesday, March 14, 2012

[PHI 1000] Free Will & Neuroscience

Here's an argument for causal determinism:
  1. One acts freely only if one is consciously aware of making decisions.
  2. But, [as studies show] decisions are being made before one is consciously aware of making them.
  3. Therefore, one does not act freely.

 Is this argument sound? If so, what does it mean for the notion of free will?

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